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MBLEx Practice Test 2025

Preparing for the Massage & Bodywork Licensing Exam (MBLEx)? You’re in the right place! Take our 20-question simulated practice test covering all 7 MBLEx content areas. Then, leverage our actionable study plan, exam-day tips, and downloadable resources to walk into test day with confidence.

MBLEx Practice Test 1

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1 / 50

1) Kyphosis is an exaggerated curvature of the:

a) Lumbar spine

b) Thoracic spine

c) Cervical spine

d) Sacrum

2 / 50

2) Osteoporosis primarily affects:

a) Synovial fluid

b) Bone density

c) Cartilage integrity

d) Muscle tone

3 / 50

3) A client reports tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. This may indicate:

a) Thoracic outlet syndrome

b) Carpal tunnel syndrome

c) Sciatica

d) Plantar fasciitis

4 / 50

4) A client has a sunburn. Massage is:

a) Contraindicated locally

b) Beneficial for healing

c) Safe with extra oil

d) Encouraged to reduce pain

5 / 50

5) Which law regulates sanitation in spas?

a) HIPAA

b) OSHA

c) State cosmetology/barbering boards

d) FTC

6 / 50

6) Which condition presents with "butterfly rash" on the face?

a) Psoriasis

b) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

c) Rosacea

d) Eczema

7 / 50

7) Whirlpools combine massage with:

a) Cryotherapy

b) Hydrotherapy

c) Electrotherapy

d) Phototherapy

8 / 50

8) Which violates HIPAA compliance?

a) Storing records in a locked cabinet

b) Discussing client details in a public elevator

c) Using encrypted emails

d) Disposing of records via shredding

9 / 50

9) When assessing posture, a forward head position often accompanies:

a) Swayback

b) Rounded shoulders

c) Anterior pelvic tilt

d) Flat feet

10 / 50

10) Draping is primarily used for:

a) Enhancing glide

b) Client modesty and safety

c) Increasing friction

d) Thermal regulation

11 / 50

11) Which condition is contraindicated for deep tissue massage?

a) Hypertension

b) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

c) Osteoarthritis

d) Fibromyalgia

12 / 50

12) The mitral valve separates which two chambers of the heart?

a) Right atrium and right ventricle

b) Left atrium and left ventricle

c) Right ventricle and pulmonary artery

d) Left ventricle and aorta

13 / 50

13) Which hormone regulates calcium levels in the blood?

a) Insulin

b) Thyroxine

c) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

d) Cortisol

14 / 50

14) Which massage modality uses feet for compression?

a) Shiatsu

b) Ashiatsu

c) Craniosacral

d) Myofascial release

15 / 50

15) A client discloses depression during intake. The therapist should:

a) Offer counseling

b) Refer to a mental health professional

c) Adjust pressure only

d) Avoid discussing it

16 / 50

16) Which stroke is typically used to begin a massage session?

a) Friction

b) Effleurage

c) Tapotement

d) Skin rolling

17 / 50

17) A client has a pacemaker. Avoid:

a) Swedish massage

b) Electrical modalities (e.g., TENS)

c) Hydrotherapy

d) Reflexology

18 / 50

18) Petrissage is best described as:

a) Gliding strokes

b) Kneading compression

c) Percussive tapping

d) Vibration

19 / 50

19) Informed consent requires disclosure of:

a) The therapist’s credentials

b) Risks, benefits, and alternatives

c) Payment policies

d) Clinic operating hours

20 / 50

20) Which artery is palpated at the wrist?

a) Femoral

b) Carotid

c) Brachial

d) Radial

21 / 50

21) Which muscle is the prime mover for scapular retraction?

a) Serratus anterior

b) Rhomboids

c) Pectoralis minor

d) Levator scapulae

22 / 50

22) A client with diabetes mellitus may experience:

a) Peripheral neuropathy

b) Hyperreflexia

c) Increased pain sensation

d) Muscle spasticity

23 / 50

23) The rotator cuff includes all EXCEPT:

a) Supraspinatus

b) Infraspinatus

c) Teres minor

d) Teres major

24 / 50

24) Contraindication for heat therapy:

a) Muscle tension

b) Acute inflammation

c) Chronic pain

d) Scar tissue

25 / 50

25) Eversion of the foot is primarily performed by the:

a) Tibialis anterior

b) Gastrocnemius

c) Fibularis longus

d) Soleus

26 / 50

26) The sciatic nerve exits the pelvis through which structure?

a) Inguinal canal

b) Greater sciatic foramen

c) Obturator foramen

d) Sacral hiatus

27 / 50

27) Lymphatic drainage techniques use:

a) Deep friction

b) Light, rhythmic pumping

c) Percussion

d) Stretching

28 / 50

28) Which bone bears weight in the lower leg?

a) Fibula

b) Tibia

c) Talus

d) Calcaneus

29 / 50

29) Which muscle flexes the knee and extends the hip?

a) Sartorius

b) Hamstrings

c) Quadriceps

d) Gracilis

30 / 50

30) The primary goal of palliative care massage is:

a) Increasing ROM

b) Symptom relief

c) Strength building

d) Rehabilitation

31 / 50

31) Which vitamin is synthesized by the skin?

32 / 50

32) Which structure produces synovial fluid?

a) Articular cartilage

b) Synovial membrane

c) Bursae

d) Menisci

33 / 50

33) What movement occurs in the sagittal plane?

a) Spinal rotation

b) Arm abduction

c) Elbow flexion

d) Wrist circumduction

34 / 50

34) A client faints on the table. First action:

a) Begin CPR

b) Elevate legs

c) Offer water

d) Turn prone

35 / 50

35) Myofascial release targets:

a) Muscle spindles

b) Connective tissue restrictions

c) Bone alignment

d) Joint play

36 / 50

36) The latissimus dorsi inserts at the:

a) Greater tubercle

b) Intertubercular groove

c) Coracoid process

d) Acromion

37 / 50

37) Ethical advertising prohibits:

a) Listing credentials

b) Guaranteeing cures

c) Offering discounts

d) Using social media

38 / 50

38) The sternocleidomastoid performs:

a) Neck flexion and contralateral rotation

b) Scapular elevation

c) Jaw closure

d) Trunk lateral flexion

39 / 50

39) Trigger points refer pain:

a) Only locally

b) To distant sites

c) Along dermatomes

d) To visceral organs

40 / 50

40) Piriformis syndrome may mimic:

a) Carpal tunnel

b) Sciatica

c) Plantar fasciitis

d) TMJ dysfunction

41 / 50

41) What type of lever is the ankle during plantarflexion?

a) First-class

b) Second-class

c) Third-class

d) Fourth-class

42 / 50

42) Active isolated stretching involves:

a) Partner-assisted force

b) 2-second holds with repetition

c) 60-second static holds

d) Ballistic bouncing

43 / 50

43) Which nerve innervates the diaphragm?

a) Vagus

b) Phrenic

c) Intercostal

d) Axillary

44 / 50

44) SOAP notes: "O" stands for:

a) Orthopedic test

b) Objective observations

c) Outcome

d) Orientation

45 / 50

45) Sexual misconduct includes:

a) Using appropriate draping

b) Suggesting a non-therapeutic relationship

c) Documenting sessions

d) Charging for missed appointments

46 / 50

46) The primary action of the psoas major is:

a) Hip extension

b) Hip flexion

c) Knee flexion

d) Trunk rotation

47 / 50

47) Mandated reporting applies to:

a) Client lateness

b) Suspected child abuse

c) Poor hygiene

d) Non-payment

48 / 50

48) Which technique reduces trigger point activity?

a) Effleurage

b) Tapotement

c) Ischemic compression

d) Vissage

49 / 50

49) Which muscle is primarily responsible for shoulder abduction?

a) Teres major

b) Latissimus dorsi

c) Supraspinatus

d) Pectoralis major

50 / 50

50) Which is a local contraindication?

a) Pregnancy

b) Varicose veins

c) Hypertension

d) Asthma

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The average score is 71%